Matthew 12:40

Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone (who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" means the tomb) knows of any writing that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?

In the 1st century Jesus fasted for 40 days and 40 nights. Being that anyone would be dead by then you may have some point about a part of the day counting for a whole.

Perhaps Jesus missed 40 meals would would make his fast really last only about 13 days (assuming 3 meals a day).

Since it's been awhile, perhaps someone new looking in will know of some writing.

Inclusive counting was common in the Roman Empire.
So what?
It does not make any difference to anything. it's only a story.

Hobbes Choice,

re: "Inclusive counting was common in the Roman Empire."

If it was so common, you'd think that there would be at least one example of writing that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights was used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights.

When a Roman decided on how may fence posts he need to cover 100 yards his answer was always 101, as that is the number required to cover the distance. The starting position was 1, not zero.
If you doubt this then maybe you should find an example where a Roman did not do this?!?!

From Wiki.


Inclusive counting[edit]
Inclusive counting is usually encountered when counting days in a calendar. Normally when counting "8" days from Sunday, Monday will be day 1, Tuesday day 2, and the following Monday will be the eighth day. When counting "inclusively," the Sunday (the start day) will be day 1 and therefore the following Sunday will be the eighth day. For example, the French phrase for "fortnight" is en quinze (in 15 [days]), and similar words are present in Greek (δεκαπενθήμερο, dekapenthímero), Spanish (quincena) and Portuguese (quinzena) - whereas "a fortnight" derives from "a fourteen-night", as the archaic "a sennight" does from "a seven-night". This practice appears in other calendars as well; in the Roman calendar the nones (meaning "nine" is 8 days before the ides; and in the Christian calendar Quinquagesima (meaning 50) is 49 days before Easter Sunday.

Musical terminology also uses inclusive counting of intervals between notes of the standard scale: going up one note is a second interval, going up two notes is a third interval, etc., and going up seven notes is an octave.

Every example I ever came across during my degree in Ancient History and Archaeology had this method.

Hobbes Choice,

re: "If you doubt this then maybe you should find an example where a Roman did not do this?!?!"

What makes you think that I would doubt it?

Hobbes Choice,

re: "Inclusive counting"

I don't see how inclusive counting accounts for at least a part of each specified daytime and/or at least a part of each specified nighttime.

I don't know why you can't figure this out.
An octave in 8 notes, but comprises of only seven intervals.
ABCDEFGA.

Now do you get it?

Hobbes,

re: "An octave in 8 notes, but comprises of only seven intervals. ABCDEFGA. Now do you get it?"


Of course I get it. But I don't see what that has to do with my request in the OP.